1. How many types of opinion could an Auditor
express in respect of a set of audited financial statements?
A. 10 possible opinions B. 6 possible opinions C.
5 possible opinions D. 4 possible
opinions
2. Auditing was derived from the Latin word A.
Audit. B. Audire. C. Auditory. D.
Auditor.
3. The following may disqualify an auditor from
being re-appointed, EXCEPT
A. If he is not qualified for re-appointment. B. If he has done his work perfectly
well. C. If the shareholders agree to appoint another auditor. D. If he informs
his clients by writing of his unwillingness to be re-appointed
4. The removal of an auditor before the
expiration of his/her term requires a special resolution and a notice of A. 14 days. B. 21 days. C. 28 days. D.
30 days.
5. Which of these is NOT true about the removal
of an auditor?
A. Notice of intention to remove auditor must be
sent to the auditor B. CAC must be notified within 14 days of removal of
company’s auditor C. The auditor has the right to send representations to
members who receive notice of AGM D.
The auditor can only be removed when he/she has completed his/her tenure
6. The scope and nature of an auditor’s
contractual obligation to a client is set out in the
A. Management letter. B. Scope paragraph of the
auditor’s report. C. Engagement
letter. D. Circularization letter
7. An auditor, who is expected to practice the
profession, should be A. A body corporate. B. An officer of the company. C. A member of a recognized
professional accountancy body. D. A servant of the company.
8. Which of the following is NOT part of
auditors’ duties during stocktaking? A.
Carrying out test count and recording his sample for subsequent check against
sheets. B. Carrying out cut-off tests. C.
Taking note of special items like damaged stocks, obsolete stocks and
slow-moving items. D. Obtaining photocopies of sheets or extract items from
rough stock sheets for comparison with the final stock records.
9. What should an auditor do when he/she
discovers a material misstatement? He/She should A. Disregard the material
misstatement. B. Correct the error before he writes the final audit report. C Issue a qualified report. D.
Communicate the misstatement to the appropriate level of management on timely
basis and consider the need to report it to those charged with governance.
10. The main object of an audit is ___
a) Expression of opinion
b) Detection and Prevention of fraud and error
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Depends on the type of audit
a) Expression of opinion
b) Detection and Prevention of fraud and error
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Depends on the type of audit
11. Which of the following is not true
about opinion on financial statements?
a) The auditor should express an opinion on financial statements.
b) His opinion is no guarantee to future viability of business
c) He is responsible for detection and prevention of frauds and errors in financial statements
d) He should examine whether recognized accounting principle have been consistently
a) The auditor should express an opinion on financial statements.
b) His opinion is no guarantee to future viability of business
c) He is responsible for detection and prevention of frauds and errors in financial statements
d) He should examine whether recognized accounting principle have been consistently
12. Both auditing and accounting are concerned
with financial statements. Which of the following
a) Auditing uses the theory of evidence to verify the financial information made available by Accountancy
b) Auditing lends credibility dimension and quality dimension to the financial statements prepared by the accountant.
c) Auditor should have through knowledge of accounting concepts and convention to enable him to express an opinion on financial statements
d) All of the above.
a) Auditing uses the theory of evidence to verify the financial information made available by Accountancy
b) Auditing lends credibility dimension and quality dimension to the financial statements prepared by the accountant.
c) Auditor should have through knowledge of accounting concepts and convention to enable him to express an opinion on financial statements
d) All of the above.
13. .__________ is a systematic examination of the
books and records or a business A. Auditing.
B Vouching. C Verification. D Checking
14. Which of the following are
not objectives of auditing? A Ascertain
the profit and preparation of P/L Account, Balance sheet. B Detection and
prevention of frauds and errors. C Give a true and fair view of financial
amount. D To submits the accounts to
Government
15. Audit done by the employees
of the business undertaking is called _______ .A final audit. B. management audit .C government
audit. D government audit
16. Voucher
relates to _________ .A cash receipt B cash payment C credit transactions. D all the above
17. A kind of
audit conducted for a part of the accounting year is called _______ .A Periodical audit. B Partial audit. C
Cost audit D Interim audit.
18. The main object of an audit is ___ a)
Expression of opinion b) Detection and Prevention of fraud and error c) Both
(a) and (b) d) Depends on the type
of audit.
19. Which of the following is not true about
opinion on financial statements? a) The auditor should express an opinion on
financial statements. b) His opinion is no guarantee to future viability of
business c) He is responsible for
detection and prevention of frauds and errors in financial statements d) He
should examine whether recognized accounting principle have been consistently
20. The use of an audit engagement letter is the
best method of assuring the auditor will have which of the following? a)
Auditor will obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence. b) Management
representation letter c) Access to
all books, accounts and vouchers required for audit purpose d) Cooperation from
other auditors
21. The audit engagement letter, generally, should
include a reference to each of the following except a) limitations of auditing
b) responsibilities of management with respect to audit work c) expectation of
receiving a written management representation letter. d) a description of the auditor’s method of sample selection
22. An auditor who accepts an audit but does not
possess the industry expertise of the business entity should a) engage experts b) obtain knowledge of matters that
relate to the nature of entity’s business c) inform management about it d) take
help of other auditors
23. The primary purpose of establishing quality
control policies and procedures for deciding on client evaluation is to a)
ensure adherence to generally accepted auditing standards b) acceptance or retention of clients whose management does not
lack integrity c) ensure audit fees is charged according to the type of audit
work assigned d) all of the above
24. Balance sheet audit includes verification of_
a) Assets b) Liabilities c) Income and expense accounts where appropriate d) All of the above
25. Which of the following statements is not true
about continuous audit? a) It is conducted at regular interval b) It may be
carried out on daily basis c) It is
needed when the organization has a good internal control system d) It is
expensive
26. When issuing unqualified opinion, the auditor
who evaluates the audit findings should be satisfied that the a) Amount of
known misstatement is documented in working papers b) Estimates of the total likely misstatement is less than
materiality level c) Estimate of the total likely misstatement is more than
materially level d) Estimates of the total likely misstatement cannot be made
27. Audit programme is prepared by a) the auditor b) the client c) the
audit assistants d) the auditor and his audit assistants
28. Who is responsible for the appointment of
statutory auditor of a limited company? a) Directors of the company b) Members of the company c) The
Central Government d) All of the above
29. The board of directors shall appoint first
auditor of a company a) With in one month of completion of capital subscription
state of the company b) With in one month of the promotion of the company c)
With in one month of the commencement of the business of the company d) With in one month of incorporation
of the company
30. The term of the auditor ship of first auditor
would be from the date of appointment till__ a) the conclusion of statutory
meeting b) the conclusion of first
annual general meeting c) the conclusion of next annual general meeting d) the
date of removal
31. In case the directions fail to appoint first
auditor (s), the shareholders shall appoint them at…..by passing a
resolution a) a general meeting b) first annual general meeting c) statutory
meeting d) annual general meeting
32. If a casual vacancy in the office of auditor
arises by his resignation it should only be filled by the company in a…….. a)
Board meeting b) extraordinary general meeting c) General meeting d) annual general meeting
33. The auditor of a Government company is
appointed by the C & AG. His remuneration is fixed by__ a) the C & AG b) the shareholders c) the shareholders
at an annual general meeting d) the board of directors
34. The authority to remove the first auditor
before the expiry of term is with_ a)
the shareholders in a general meeting b) the shareholders in the first annual
General meeting c) the board of directors d) the Central Government
35. Which of the following statements is not
correct regarding removal of first auditor before expiry of the term? a) He is
removed at a general meeting b) The shareholders are authorized to do so c) The approval of the Central
Government is required for such removal d) The provisions for such removal are
contained in section 224(7)
36. The retiring auditor does not have a right
to___ a) make written representations b) get his representations circulated. c)
be heard at the meeting d) speak as
a member of the company
37. Who out of the following cannot be appointed
as a statutory auditor of the company? a) Erstwhile director b) Internal auditor c) Relative of a
director d) Only (b) and (c)
38. A statutory auditor has a right of access at
all times to a) Books and accounts of a company b) Books, accounts and
documents of the company c) Books,
accounts and vouchers of the company d) Notices and documents of the company
39. The auditor has a right toa) Obtain
information and explanation b) Obtain information and explanation from the
employees and officers c) Obtain information and explanation necessary for the
purpose of audit d) Both (b) and (c
40. The date on auditor’s report should not be__
a) the data of AGM b) later than the date on which the accounts are approved in
board’s meeting c) earlier than the
date on which the accounts are approved by the management d) Both (a) and (b)
41. An auditor should study and evaluate internal
controls toa) determine whether assets are safeguarded b) Suggest improvements
in internal control c) Plan audit
procedures d) express and opinion
42. The primary purpose of performing tests of
control is to provide reasonable assurance that_ a) there are no material
misstatements due to fraud or error in financial statement b) accounting system
is well documented c) Written evidence is there to support transactions d) if internal control is effective
43. __________ is a systematic examination of the
books and records or a business. A.
Auditing. B. Vouching. C. Verification. D. Checking
44. Which of the following are not objectives of
auditing? A. Ascertain the profit and preparation of P/L Account, Balance
sheet. B. Detection and prevention of frauds and errors. C. Give a true and
fair view of financial amount. D. To submits the accounts to Government ANSWER:
D
45. Which
of the following is not a kind of audit? A. Statutory and private audit. B.
Government and continuous audit. C. Continuous, final, Interim, Cash, Cost and
Management audit. D. None of these. ANSWER:
D
46. An
audit which is compulsory by the law __________. A. Government audit. B.
Internal audit. C. Cost audit. D. Statutory audit. ANSWER: D
47. Instruction of audit issued by controller and
auditor general of India ________. A. statutory audit. B. final audit. C.
management audit. D. government audit. ANSWER:
D
48. Audit done by the employees of the business
undertaking is called _______. A. final audit. B. management audit. C.
government audit. D. government audit. ANSWER:
B
49. This
kind of audit is conducted generally between two annual audit ______. A.
internal audit. B. interim audit. C. final audit. D. continuous audit. ANSWER: B
50. Management audit otherwise called as _______.
A. final audit. B. efficiency audit. C. cost audit. D. cash audit. ANSWER: B
51. A
number of checks and controls exercised in a business to ensure its efficient
working is known as ________. A. Internal check. B. Internal control. C.
Internal audit. D. Interim check. ANSWER:
B
52. Voucher
relates to _________. A. cash receipt. B. cash payment. C. credit transactions.
D. all the above. ANSWER: D
53. Internal check is meant for ___________. A.
prevention of frauds. B. detection of frauds. C. helping audit is depth. D.
detection of errors. ANSWER: A
54. Internal auditor is appointed by ________. A.
the management. B. the shareholders C. the government. D. he statutory body. ANSWER: A
55. Auditing begins where ______ ends. A. Selling.
B. inventory valuation. C. Accounting. D. Purchases. ANSWER: C
56. A kind
of audit conducted for a part of the accounting year is called _______. A.
Periodical audit. B. Partial audit. C. Cost audit. D. Interim audit. ANSWER: A
57. For
which of the following, Audit is optional? A. Trusts. B. Joint stock companies.
C. Proprietorship concern. D. None of the above. ANSWER: C
58. The
audit that is made compulsory under statute is called _________. A. Statutory
audit. B. Partial audit. C. Complete audit. D. Continuous audit. ANSWER: A
59. The receipt of goods must be entered in
_________. A. goods inward book. B. goods outward book C. receipt of Stores. D.
receipt issue and balance of stores ANSWER:
A
60. A good audit report must at least meet one of
the following qualifications __________. A. it should offer constructive and
timely suggestions to the management. B. it should not point out mistakes. C.
it should not be based on factual information. D. it should not be based on
balance sheet. ANSWER: A
61. The work of one clerk is automatically check
by another clerk is called _________. A. Internal control. B. Internal check.
C. Internal audit. D. None of the above. ANSWER:
B
62. Verification is __________. A. the art of
recording the business transaction. B. an examination of the books of accounts.
C. the act of establishing the accuracy of entries in the books of accounts. D.
none of the above. ANSWER: C
63. The main objectives of investigation are
_________. A. to discover errors and frauds. B. to prevent errors and frauds.
C. to verify statements. D. all the above. ANSWER:
D
64. Internal controls and internal check are
____________. A. one and the same. B. different. C. internal control includes
internal check. D. None of the above. ANSWER:
C
65. The liabilities of an auditor can be
_________. A. Civil. B. Criminal. C. Civil and Criminal. D. Official. ANSWER: C
66. The first auditors appointed hold office
____________. A. for a period of one year. B. for a period of two years. C. for
a period of three years. D. till the conclusion of the first annual general
meeting. ANSWER: D
67. The company’s auditor is expected to give
_____________. A. his expert opinion about the accounts. B. a factual position
about the accounts. C. a critical review of the accounts. D. financial
assistance. ANSWER: A
68. Internal auditor of a company must be
_______________. A. Cost accountant. B. Chartered accountant. C. ICWA. D. need
not possess any professional qualification. ANSWER: B
69. Auditors of a joint stock company are
appointed by ______________. A. directors of the company. B. annual general
meeting. C. election at the annual general meeting. D. debenture holders. ANSWER: C
70. A company auditor can be removed by
_________________. A. board of directors. B. managing director. C. any
director. D. general meeting. ANSWER: D
71. A
vacancy caused by resignation of an auditor is filled by _________. A. board of
directors. B. managing director. C. general meeting. D. central government. ANSWER: C
72. Management audit is ___________. A. an
independent appraisal of the total a management process. B. a statutory
requirement. C. an investigation into the conduct of director. D. an
independent appraisal of competitiveness of business. ANSWER: A
73. Management audit is ordered by the
___________. A. workers of a company. B. government. C. board of directors. D.
SEBI. ANSWER: C
74. The
remuneration of an auditor of partnership firm is fixed by _____. A. The
Partnership Act. B. The Companies Act. C. The Government. D. None of these. ANSWER: D
75. As far
as a company is concerned, which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched? A. Internal audit - Obligatory. B. Statutory audit - Mandatory. C.
Continuous Audit - Optional. D. Management - Voluntary. ANSWER: A
76. Interim audit refers to an audit conducted
___________. A. in between the two different accounting years. B. in between
two statutory annual audits within the same accounting period. C. in between
one statutory audit and an internal audit in the same accounting period. D. in
between one statutory audit, one management audit and one internal audit. ANSWER: B
77. Audit
techniques are concerned with _____________. A. examination of those evidences
which have been traced by audit procedures. B. application of generally
accepted accounting principles to particular phases or a financial statement.
C. accuracy and validity of management authorization to the account section
employees. D. methods of conducting a business affair and reporting in annual
report. ANSWER: A
78. The
main purpose of an independent audit is to ___________. A. check and correct
frauds and errors. B. help in detecting frauds and errors. C. determines if the
financial statements fairly represent the actual financial position and the
working results of the organization. D. help in formulating future plans. ANSWER: C
79. Management refers to ______________. A.
examination of books and audit of accounts done by the management. B. The
periodic assessment of company’s activities by the statutory auditor. C.
periodic assessment of company managerial planning, organizing, actuating and
controlling compared to norm of successful operation. D. auditor assessment of
the financial statement of the entity ANSWER:
C
80. The most important objective of internal audit
is ____________. A. early detection of errors and fraud. B. facilitating final
audit. C. early finalization of annual account. D. ensuring systematic
accounting. ANSWER: A
81. Test Checking reduces the _________. A. power
of an auditor. B. expenses of auditor. C. work of an auditor. D. liability of
an auditor. ANSWER: C
82. An employee cannot be an auditor of the
company because __________. A. he cannot find his own mistakes. B. a person
cannot audit his own account. C. he may give bias and subjective views. D. it
is prohibited by company law. ANSWER: C
83. Except in special cases the retiring auditor
is automatically _________. A. re-appointed. B. dismissed. C. disqualified. D.
suspended. ANSWER: D
84. An auditor can be held liable under CA act
1949 for _________. A. breach of control. B. negligence. C. criminal officer.
D. professional misconduct. ANSWER: A
85. __________ Audit is a comprehensive critical
review of all aspects or processes of management. A. Company. B. Management. C.
Conventional. D. Computerized. ANSWER: D
86. Audit at the end of the year is known as
___________. A. specific audit. B. general audit C. government audit. D.
periodical audit. ANSWER: B
87. Accountancy work is done throughout the
accounting period although auditing work is done ____________. A. after the end
of accounting period. B. in the middle of accounting period. C. from the second
month of accounting period. D. after the end of one month. ANSWER: A
88. A
special auditor has to submit his report to the __________. A. management B.
state government. C. central government. D. none of these. ANSWER: D
89. Balance
sheet audit is useful where _____. A. the concern is a small one. B. the
internal check is weak. C. the concern is a big one. D. the concern is banned. ANSWER: A
90. Auditing means where ____ ends. A. accounting.
B. inventory valuation. C. business. D. selling. ANSWER: A
91. A
voucher is a document _________. A. it support of an entry made in the books of
accounts. B. it is an extra-ordinary meeting C. when all other directors are
out of station. D. one person can never constitute the quorum. ANSWER: A
92. Financial statements are the representations
of A. the auditor B. the board of directors C. the AICPA D. management ANSWER D
93. The definition of auditing states that the
auditor A. objectively obtains evidence
B. is independent C. must evaluate internal control D. All of the above ANSWER D
94. . If an auditor is not independent, he should
issue a A. disclaimer B. unqualified
report with explanatory paragraph C. qualified report D. representation letter ANSWER A
95. The concept of materiality is recognized in
the auditor's report A. in the
introductory paragraph
B. in an explanatory paragraph C. in the scope
paragraph D. materiality is not
recognized in the auditor's report ANSWER
C
96. Audit
documentation is the property of A. the
client B. the auditor C. both the client and the auditor D. the audit committee ANSWER B
97. The objective of the audit plan is A. to
conduct the audit in accordance with GAAS B. reduce the risk of material misstatements
to an acceptably low level C. prepare an unqualified report D. Both A & B ANSWER D
98. The following are categories of audit report
except A. Adverse B. Qualified C. Unqualified D. none of the above. ANSWER D
99. A limitation in scope arises when A. a
material misstatement is disclosed B. an auditor lack independence C. A client
imposes a restriction on the auditor D.
A & C ANSWER D
100.
Which of the
following is correct concerning an auditor’s responsibilities regarding
financial statements (A) Making suggestions that are adopted about the form and
contents of an entity’s financial statement (B) An auditor may draft an entity’s
financial statements based on information from the management accounting system
(C) The fair presentation of audited financial statements in conformity with
regulation is an implicit part of auditor’s responsibilities. (D) An auditor’s
responsibilities for audited financial statement is contained in his letter of
engagement (E) The auditor must include in the audited financial statements
details of his letter of engagement. ANSWER
B
101.
Which of the
following resolutions does not require special notice if put before the members
of a company in general meeting? A resolution to: (A) Appoint the first
auditors (B) Appoint the new auditors in place of retiring auditors (C) Fill a
casual vacancy (D) Remove auditors before expiry of their term of office (E)
Appoint a Company Secretary ANSWER A
102.
In expressing an
opinion on the accounts of clients, the auditor does not accept responsibility
for which of the following? 25 (A) The consistency of the application of
accounting policies (B) The reliability of opening balances (C) The
appropriateness of the comparative figures included in the accounts (D) The
preparation of financial statements (E) Compliance with legal requirements. ANSWER B
103.
Which of these
departments is NOT normally found in an audit firm? (A) Taxation (B) Audit/Taxation
(C) Production (D) Management consultancy (E) Insolvency ANSWER C
104.
Which of the
following professional services is NOT offered by a Chartered Accountant in
addition to his service as auditor of a client? (A) Acting as a Reporting
Accountant in an initial public offer (B) Keeping client’s accounting books (C)
Attending to tax queries (D) Recommending remedial actions to audit committee
(E) Participating in annual stock taking ANSWER
D
105.
Which of the
following is NOT a specific audit problem in insurance companies? A. The treatment of premium income 89 B.
Unexpired risks C. The calculation of outstanding claims D. Outstanding
directors’ remuneration E. Allocation of underwriting claims handling and
investment expenses ANSWER D
106.
Which of the following is NOT required as part
of financial statements under Section 334 of CAMA? A. A Statement of Value
Added B. Statement of Cash flow C. Statements of Accounting Policies D.
Statement of Financial Position as at the end of the year E. The Chairman’s
Report ANSWER E
107.
The statement
that shows how the benefits of an effort of an enterprise are shared between
employees, providers of capital and the amount of re-investment is known as A.
Statement of Cash flow B. Statement of Value Added C. Financial Statement D.
Statement of Comprehensive Income E. Auditor’s Report ANSWER B
108.
Which of the
following letters confirms the acceptance and understanding of the audit
assignment? A. Comfort Letter B. Letter of Consent C. Engagement Letter D.
Management Letter E. Letter of Representation ANSWER C
109.
Statements which
show how the basic procedure contained in the standard is to be applied is
described as A. Accounting Standard B Professional Pronouncements C Guidelines
D Auditing Standards E International Financial Reporting Standards ANSWER C
110.
Which of the
following is NOT an objective of auditing standard and guidelines? A. To minimize engagement risk. B. To ensure
quality control of an audit. C. To enhance the initiative of the auditor. D. To
ensure uniformity in carrying out audit assignment. E. To increase auditors
image in the eyes of the users of the financial statements. ANSWER C
111.
The fundamental principles of professional
conduct are as follows EXCEPT A. A member should behave with integrity in all
professional and business relationships. B. A member should strive for
objectivity in all professional and business judgement. C. A member should not
accept or perform work which he or she is not competent to undertake. D. A
member should carry out his or her professional work with due skill, care,
diligence and expedition. E. A member should always obtain the advice and
guideline of senior members in all professional engagement. ANSWER E
112.
Which of the
following is a safeguard created by the profession against threats to
independence, objectivity and integrity? A. Continuing professional education
requirement B. A corporate governance structure C. Peer pressures towards
integrity and objectivity D. Partners high regard for their careers and
reputation 99 E. Emphasis on integrity and objectivity as hallmark qualities ANSWER A
113.
According to the
professional code of conduct for members of ICAN, a member who discovers
information which adversely affects accounts or statement that he is currently
preparing or auditing should A. Stop work on it immediately B. Report to police
C. Qualify his report on the accounts D. Report to the tax office E. Resign his
appointment as auditors and refund all fees already received for the exercise ANSWER C
Which of
the sanctions listed below is NOT imposed by The Institute of Chartered
Accountants of Nigeria for misconduct of its members A. Reprimand B. Payment of
costs C. Closure of practising office of the members D. Suspension from
membership E. Removal of name from membership register ANSWER CCOMPILED BY MONDAY DESMOND
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